>>9697
>Don't tell me it's wrong, it's straight from your bible.
It's wrong.
The original words means something far more intense than just "lust"; it's not a fleeting moment's lusty thought, it's virtually the planning of it with the intention of taking another man's wife, a very serious offense in those days (due to STD's, cheating endangered the whole Hebrew tribe, which is why adultery is punished by capital punishment, it's an offense against the whole nation).
>You'll explain it away just like you do everything else but you never give sources,
It's not explaining away, it's just the context and the original language; know that most Christian don't like it any better than you when I add information to this.
Sources is history and the original text. I can get you some sources now if you want.
"Another important point is that the command does not forbid recognition of quality or even desire itself (such would be nonsense) but something else: it forbids the action of coveting (hence the verbal form). “Lust” or “desire,” even the sexual variety, is nowhere forbidden in Scripture, nor is it equated with sin, only with the potential to sin (cf. James 1, where lust leads to sin but is not itself sinful). It is also important to note the distinction between the verbal form and the nominal form: when the Hebrew חמד or Greek ἐπιθυμέω are used as verbs in the OT, it denotes desire directed at obtaining the specific object in question and not merely the existence of the desire itself."
http://www.jasonstaples.com/bible/most-misinterpreted-bible-passages-1-matthew-527-28/
In other words, the sin is in the planning of taking something that isn't yours. The desire itself isn't the sin.
Hope you found that informative.