>>3629
There's no neutral footing here: either Jews were polygamous or they were not. Given that the Old Testament has plenty of polygamous unions and that the Jews were polygamous, nobody reading the Bible would assume monogamous marriage here, simply because the rest of the book assumes polygamy. So if there was a neutral footing, it'd be polygamy for the reason cited. There's no reason, to my knowledge, to assume monogamy because there's nothing to base monogamy on: Roman influence came later, and only at the point where Christianity becomes their state religion, where a great many pagan ideas come into Christianity, monogamy being one among them. If you can explain Christian monogamy any other way, I'm all ears.
>If I divorce my wife I'd commit adultery according to you interpretation because I'd force her to remarry somehow.
Adultery may have a larger meaning, I don't know. The adultery may even reside in the simple fact of considering one woman your wife and the other not. If I have time, I'll look into it.
>But I only commit adultery if I divorce her AND remarry according to the verse. Why?
Back then, if I am not mistaken, you couldn't be a single woman for very long. So if your wife doesn't belong to you anymore, she must belong to someone else, automatically, so it is assumed that merely divorcing her implies her remarriage. Your own marriage to another, new wife may be mentioned only in passing. I suppose losing a wife means you'll want to replace her with another, so she can do the job the previous one did, keeping in mind that families back then were very busy and had specifically assigned tasks.
I wonder what the experts say about this.