>>3341
>Implying the great schism was the first schism.
It is the schism I am talking about, though. I don't see what difference it makes if there have been others before.
>I am steering? You asked which one and I answered. Simple as that.
I'm asking, for instance, what difference it makes for the common Christian whether the Holy Spirit proceed from the Father alone or from both the Father and the Son, and you never answered that. Saying that the Catholic Church is the only one which can state new dogmas does not answer my question either, as you haven't explained why it's the only one.
>In fact the Orthodox have a very special relation to dogma in general and reject any new ones.
Such as the filioque. When was the last time the Catholic Church accepted a new dogma, out of curiosity?
>Then I might as well leave.
I'm sorry if you thought this thread was about you.
>The Church as a whole can declare dogma and the bishop of Rome is her representative.
Fine, but you still haven't explained why the bishop of Rome gets this privilege when other bishops don't (apart from having military power and being more akin to a state than all other Churches).
>Nice equality.
I am only giving you the definition the bishops themselves had prior to the schism, in case you missed that. All bishops functioned the way they currently do in Orthodoxy: all bishops are equal, none has more weight than any others. The bishop of Rome was merely the bishop of Rome the same way the bishop of Antioch was just the bishop of Antioch. All dogmas were to be agreed on by all bishops equally, and not one of them could override any of the others; this is why they stated what I restated: the bishop of Rome was considered the first and most important, but having no especial powers over the other bishops. Then the bishop of Rome decided otherwise and I am not currently aware of the reasons for this change.
This is why Ortodox view Catholics as heretics (and Protestants along with them, which are seen as crypto-papists now, or Catholics 2.0).
>But if I did I would "steer"this conversation somewhere where it is not meant to go.
If I asked you about it, I guess that's where the conversation is meant to go. It is only when you answer something I haven't asked you that the conversation goes somewhere where it isn't meant to go.
I'm not against digressions in general, I just have little interest in being told, without any reason or argument, why you are correct and beyond error. It does nothing for me or anybody else. If you tell me the Catholic Church is correct because A and B and C, then there's something to think about, but if you tell me the CC is correct just because it's the CC, I learn nothing new.
>not understanding feudalism
A vassal does not have the military power that many Popes had back then. If you have the name of an Orthodox bishop who had military power, I'm all ears.
>I give you an answer to something you asked.
I have shown that you frequently did not.
>It's hard to find bishops not under him after all ;^)
If you mean by that that no Orthodox bishop counts as one, sure. I'll assume you don't actually know of one that fits my description.
>Yes? You claimed that only the bishop of rome was involved in military leadership. Which is not true.
With regards to Orthodox bishops, yes. At this point I'm thinking you don't have a clear image of the Church before the schism and don't understand what I'm asking or why.
I'll simplify: before the schism, each important city in Christianity is a "church" and is led by one bishop. A bishop is then the leader of all the Christians in a city. Those cities weren't many: Jerusalem, Rome, Antioch, Alexandria, Cyprus, etc. Each has a bishop, and bishops together decide of dogmatic issues and such. They're all equal in religious matters and the bishop of Rome is an equal to all other bishops, at this point.
I have said before that the filioque wasn't the reason for the schism, but a symptom of it, and that, likely, actual reasons for the schism have to do with the fact that the bishop of Rome was more of a military leader and state ruler than any of the other bishops, who lived under the rule of someone else. The mix of religion and politics happened in Rome but not necessarily and not to that degree in the other cities. None of the other bishops, if I am not mistaken, had armies at his dispositions, nor did any have much to say about the laws of the land where they lived, unlike the bishop of Rome.
This difference, in my opinion, is part of why the schism happened.