"I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery."
Matthew 19:9
Other translations have unfaithfulness for "sexual immorality", that is, "cheating". My first question has to do with this.
1. If Christ allows divorce for cause of being unfaithful, how does that work considering that adultery gets you death by stoning? What's the point of being divorced officially if you're going to be dead in a short time?
Mormonic bonus for that question: if the "Mosaic laws" are in effect until the Atonement, then how come Christ changes that law before the Atonement?
2. If Christ allows divorce, why don't all Christian denominations allow divorce? I've asked this often but nobody ever answers me.
Catholic bonus for that question: can we go against Christ in the name of tradition? And isn't tradition supposed to support Christ's message and make it clearer? Where are the limits of tradition?
3. Many use this verse to suggest that Christ supported monogamous marriage, due to the idea that divorcing one wife for bad reasons and remarrying another wife makes him an adulterous person because his divorce is not valid and therefore, he is still technically married to her; is this compatible with polygamy? If so, how? How does marrying yet another woman make you adulterous if you can anyway have 50?
4. If Christ allows divorce for adultery, doesn't it ensue that He also does not want adulterous spouses to be stoned to death for it? Why would you need to divorce someone who will die anyway?
That's enough questions for now.