>>72
>"ᛉ" historically sounded /z/ or /r/ depending on the time or place. If you use it for /r/ then you have two runes for that sound, ᚱ and ᛉ, but nothing for /z/.
I see what he's doing, though. He's going to a whole nother level – no longer just transliterating, but also applying grammatical constructions.
He's using "ᛉ" not just for a letter, but for it's historical function within a word – it's not just "z" (or "r"), but rather germannic masculine -z, which occurs in executive/descriptive nouns like nigger.
In english, it's modern form is "-er", so he's using it phonetically and to follow its use in grammar.