>>15816
>1) If a jet flies over your property or a very heavy truck passes nearby causing your property to vibrate/shake, or perhaps someone digs underneath your property, is it a violation of your property and thus a violation of the non-aggression axiom?
I'd say yes. I see no qualitative difference between this and between detonating a bomb next to your property, at a distance long enough to only cause vibrations.
>2) Is spanking (or as "an"coms put it, "hitting") your child a violation of the NAP? Even if it is, does it matter?
Haven't quite figured this out. I'm not a big fan of Rothbards view on children. He's on to something, but it has several flaws. For example, he regards children as the property of their parents, except that they can't do whatever they want because children could potentially develop self-ownership. Then how exactly do children even fit under the definition of property?
>If you do not consider it a violation, is spanking your spouse a violation of the NAP?
Yes, very clearly, unless you have agreed to doing so.
>3) Can masturbating in public (or exhibitionism in general), as degenerate as it is, be considered a violation of the NAP? Question sparked by >>>/n/269523
On truly unowned property? No. Why should it be?
>4) Suicide booths could be considered a violation of the NAP since they're helping kill someone, even if it's indirectly.
Even directly killing someone is not a violation of the NAP if you do it with the permission of whoever you're killing. Hurting someone with his or her permission or even with his explicit wish is not a violation of his rights. If anything, it's an acknowledgement that those rights are his own.