>>18221
>The problem lies in you claiming that self-ownership is neccesarily for morality, because you define property as moral. That is like stating that boozippybobs are necessary for morality, because I define boozippybobs as moral.
I have never claimed that self-ownership as a recognized/valid concept was necessary for moral truth to exist. +1 internet to you for strawmanning :)))!
>you define property as moral.
No, I define ownership as the moral right to use etc., I never said that "property is moral" nor any phrase closely resembling that. A property claim is a moral claim, which may or may not be valid.
>1) You did not list not all the alternatives, you took property as premise and then gave examples that don't even follow from it. Egoist anarchism can be an alternative, christian theology can be an alternative, zen buddhism can be an alternative.
I've done so, see:
>>17733
The alternatives to full self-ownership are full slavery, a variety of "partial" slavery (30% owned by your mother, 30% by the state, etc.), or no self-ownership. Partial non-ownership is irrelevant, either the parts that are owned are a "controlling share" or they are not, if the latter, the case might as well be full self-ownership as there is no logical distinction in practice.
>2) This is an argument for consequences, which is a fallacy
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reductio_ad_absurdum
I don't see the word "fallacy" on that page, except for the explanation of the strawman fallacy.
>Which means that personhood is dependend upon the brain, with the brain being dependend on the body. It means that personhood does not exist separately from the body, that there is no man owning the machine.
First of all, it's dependent, so feel free to spell it properly any time. Personhood is dependent upon the brain, but could also be sustained by exceptionally complex computers that were capable of "emulating" a consciousness. Personhood is dependent, essentially, upon a complex interplay of information being exchanged, this is dependent on a physical brain only due to the limitations of technology.
>It means that personhood does not exist separately from the body,
But it could, so this is a naturalistic fallacy again; even if, in natural terms, consciousness was necessarily dependent upon a biological/organic brain, it does not logically follow that there is no philosophical distinction between personhood and body. A baby is dependent upon nutrition, and by extension, mother for survival, this does not mean there is no moral distinction between the two
>that there is no man owning the machine.
This is a non-sequitur, do not pass go, do not collect $200.
>1) You beg the question by assuming that morality objectively exists because you define property as moral
See the top, I didn't.
>2) You assume that there can be no morality without people being property
This is a non-sequitur. The fact that I have proposed a logically consistent moral theory founded upon property rights does not mean I have necessarily claimed to thereby prove that no other statement about morality can be true. I might believe that to be the case, but you are making an unfounded assumption by assuming I have assumed that :)
>3) You assume that such a moral right is a necessity for people to fend people of, it's not
Necessary for it to physically happen? No, I never assumed this, in fact I made quite sure to distinguish between the moral and physical consequences of my moral theory. Yet you still managed to fuck it up.
>4) You assume that only self-ownership can be a reason for why people see being infringed as morally wrong
Wrong, I explain clearly why, if there is no self-ownership, rape is by definition morally neutral. At least, the rape is not an infringement on the victim's rights, it might be considered a violation in that the rapist does not have the moral right to use his body to rape.
>I'm having a field day here.
A rainy one, and you're the only one who thinks you've accomplished anything.
>You didn't. You stated that it would imply that rape isn't bad
That's exactly what is implied by the statement "a woman does not have the right to exclude other people from her body." If that is true, which is necessary to say "there is no self-ownership", rape is by definition morally neutral. Sorry you're retarded and can't follow simple logic.
>and that because we see rape as bad, that self-ownership is therefor correct. That is a classical example of an appeal to consequences.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reductio_ad_absurdum
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reductio_ad_absurdum
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reductio_ad_absurdum
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reductio_ad_absurdum
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reductio_ad_absurdum
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reductio_ad_absurdum
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reductio_ad_absurdum
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reductio_ad_absurdum